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The LORD said to My Lord

The Hebrew word in the passage you quoted is Adonai, not adoni.

This can be confirmed by consulting a Lexicon.

The translators really do make a mess of it-- compounded by changing Yahweh/Jehovah to LORD.

In this instance it becomes a ridiculous Lord LORD.
 
The Hebrew word in the passage you quoted is Adonai, not adoni.

This can be confirmed by consulting a Lexicon.

I’m linking the Lexicon at Bible Hub for Genesis 15:2. The Lexicon correctly reports that the Hebrew word is Adonai. Those able to read Hebrew, which is provided by the source, will see instantly that the word is, unquestionably, Adonai.


Further confirmation is presented from the Mechon Mamre website.

 
I’m linking the Lexicon at Bible Hub for Genesis 15:2. The Lexicon correctly reports that the Hebrew word is Adonai. Those able to read Hebrew, which is provided by the source, will see instantly that the word is, unquestionably, Adonai.


There is only one reason to use the term, or properly-- the title "Lord" and that is to make a distinction of superiority through comparison.

Some translations will say- "Sovereign" Yahweh. well..... duh. Of course God is sovereign, but over what? Over all others.

Since we are American (primarily) here we don't have the English bearing that girds us for a proper understanding of "Lord." It would do well to remember that our Bibles do. To the translators- "Lord" would have an association with a sovereign ruler, master, feudal leader, landowner, and so on.... it would not be used to denote "Divinity" rather- sovereignty. Which is why many translations do just that in this instance.
 
Yet, they don’t translate it that way but lord god. Inconsistent translation serves no good purpose.

The KJV uses Lord GOD -- But why? In the same text they will use all caps for LORD and tell you that means Yahweh. Then they will use big L, small ord-- for Lord and tell you in the notes that they mean Yahweh. Then they will use all caps GOD and tell you- wait for it.... that means Yahweh. Mostly unnoticed-- in the same text you have the word of the Lord-- which means God's sovereign declaration, followed by the angel of the Lord-- a messenger who comes with that sovereign word.

Then, in the same story you have Yahweh coming to Hagar- and she names the God who comes to her-- Lahai Roi -the God who sees me. In this instance, the translators use a big G, little od for God (El).
 
The KJV uses Lord GOD -- But why
As I said, lord LORD shows the error of their translation.

God has a name, one eternal name that he will always be known by, and it is not Jesus.

The Bible was compiled by trinitarians and they will not let something as irrelevant as the actual words of God to undermine their IDOL. So, they're OK with inconsistently translating.
 
James. D.G. Dunn comments on Psalm 110:1

“The Lord says to my lord:
‘Sit at my right hand,
till I make your enemies your footstool.’

Its importance here lies in the double use of kyrios. The one is clearly Yahweh, but who is the other? Clearly not Yahweh, but an exalted being whom the psalmist calls kyrios.

(Unity and Diversity in the New Testament: An Inquiry Into the Character of Earliest Christianity, p. 53)

“Clearly not Yahweh” = clearly not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Israel, the one true God.
 
James. D.G. Dunn comments on Psalm 110:1

“The Lord says to my lord:
‘Sit at my right hand,
till I make your enemies your footstool.’

Its importance here lies in the double use of kyrios. The one is clearly Yahweh, but who is the other? Clearly not Yahweh, but an exalted being whom the psalmist calls kyrios.

(Unity and Diversity in the New Testament: An Inquiry Into the Character of Earliest Christianity, p. 53)

“Clearly not Yahweh” = clearly not the God of Abraham, Isaac and Israel, the one true God.

I agree-- I think you are much closer when you say God- or Yahweh says to the Messiah (Christ) or his son....

David recognizes this "Lord" as his master-- his superior. And I think Jesus does too.
 
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