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The LORD said to My Lord

I

ICHTHUS

Guest
“Now while the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them a question, saying, “What do you think about the Christ? Whose Son is He?” They said to him, “The son of David.”( Matthew 22:41-42). How can the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David? David himself, in the Holy Spirit, declared, ‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet.” David himself calls him Lord. So how is he his son?” And the great throng heard him gladly.” (Mark 12:35-37). And no one was able to answer him a word, nor from that day did anyone dare to ask him any more questions” (Matthew 22:46)”

This is THE most Important question that any human being can ever be asked, “What do you think about the Christ?. The answer to this question will determine the eternal destiny of every human, depending on what their answer is. Who is Jesus Christ? To these Jews, Jesus says, “what do you think about The Messiah”, “Ho Christos” being the Greek equivalent to the Hebrew, “Mashiach”.

Jesus is not here denying that He is “The Son of David”, which means that His human line came from David. This is confirmed in the very first verse in the Gospel of Matthew. Those who heard Jesus preach, often called out to Him, “"Have mercy on us, Son of David!" (Matthew 9:27; 15:22; 20:30, etc). To which Jesus never objected. The Term, “The Son of David”, was known as a Title of the Messiah at this time, as we read in Matthew 12:23, “All the crowds were amazed, and were saying, “This man cannot be the Son of David, can he?”. And, “Has not the Scripture said that the Christ comes from the descendants of David, and from Bethlehem, the village where David was?” (John 7:42). These first century Jews knew what it meant by “The Son of David”.

In these passages in the Gospels, Jesus is quoting from the Old Testament Psalm 110.

“The LORD said to My Lord…”

It is clear from these passages, that Jesus Christ is here claiming for Himself, Absolute Deity, as Yahweh, and fully equal with God the Father.

Psalm 110 is understood as Messianic, by the older Jewish commentators. Which is what the Jews in Jesus’ time would have known. As we see for verse 1:

“In the Midrash Tehillim on this passage, it is said, " God spake thus to the Messiah”” (J Stewart Perowne, The Book of Pslams, p.288)

John Gill says in his commentary, that the Targum of Jonathan reads in verse 1, “the Lord said to his Word”

Here we have, "The LORD (Yahweh) said”, “to My Lord (Adoni)” a direct address by Yahweh to Adon (the root word), which is masculine and singular. It is argued by some, that this Hebrew noun is used in the sense of “master, lord, sir, governor”, as a title of “respect” for a more “noble” person, and always only for humans, and never of God. As we shall see, that these arguments are misleading, and do not reflect the use of “Adon”, in the Bible.

The Masoretes punctuate verse one: “Adoni”, which is the singular noun and singular suffix, literally, “my lord”, or “my Lord”. This can be used for God as well as humans. The form “Adonai”, plural noun and singular suffix, literally, “my Lords”, or “Lord”, which is only used for God.

A website that is used to promote “Unitarianism” as the Bible’s Teaching of the God of the Bible, and is anti Trinitarian, says this on the use of “Adon” in this verse:

“The Hebrew word translated “my lord” is adoni (pronounced “Adon nee”) in the standard Hebrew texts. This word is always used in Scripture to describe human masters and lords, but never God...The difference between adon (the root word), adoni (“lord,” always used of men or angels) and adonai (which is used of God and sometimes written adonay) is critical to the understanding of Psalm 110:1.” (https://www.biblicalunitarian.com/verses/psalm-110-1)

Likewise, we have the argument used by a Jewish Rabbi:

“I should note that the second “lord” in Hebrew is not “ado-nai” – the term the Torah reserves for God, but “adoni”. The latter is a simple Hebrew word which means “my lord” but is not sacred. Throughout the Torah that word is used in reference to honored human beings but never to God, e.g. Genesis 18:3, 23:6, 24:18, 31:35, 33:8, 34:14, 44:18, etc. Thus, it was incorrectly capitalized in your translation. In fact, Hebrew has no capital letters so capitalizations which are found in English translations are merely based on translators’ assumptions, and as you can see, are not always reliable.” (Rabbi Dovid Rosenfeld; https://www.aish.com/atr/Psalm-110-Two-Lords.html)

Are these comments factually right? The evidence from the Old Testament itself, will show that these two websites are here are completely wrong. There are many instances in the Old Testament, where “Adon” is used for Almighty God. In Exodus 23:17, “the Lord (Adon) GOD”; Exodus 34:23, “before the Lord (Adon) GOD, the God of Israel”; Joshua 3:11, 13, “the Lord (Adon) of all the earth”; Psalm 97:5, “the Lord (Adon) of the whole earth”; Psalm 114:7 reads, “Tremble, thou earth, at the presence of the Lord (Adon)”; Isaiah 1:24, 3:1, 10:16, 10:33, 19:4, “the Lord (Adon), the LORD of hosts”; Isaiah 51:22, “Thus saith thy Lord (Adon) the LORD, and thy God”; Micah 4:13, “the Lord (Adon) of the whole earth”; Zechariah 4:14, “the Lord (Adon) of the whole earth”; 6:5, “the Lord (Adon) of all the earth”. In Deuteronomy 10:17, we read: “O give thanks to the Lord of lords”; and Psalm 136:3, it says: “For the LORD your God [is] God of gods, and Lord of lords”. In the Hebrew, where it says “Lord”, and “lord”, in its 4 uses, the word used is, “Adon”. They are in the masculine plural, literally, “master of masters”. So, to say that “Adon”, “is always used in Scripture to describe human masters and lords, but never God”, as these websites do, is downright misleading.

It matters not whether it reads as it does in Psalm 110:1, as “my Lord”, or, as in Isaiah 51:22, “thy Lord”, or, simply “the Lord”. Each case the root word is the same in the Hebrew, “Adon”. And we have clear uses of this word for the Lord God in the Old Testament, and not as some suggest, only used for humans.

Verses that use “Adon” in these contexts, “the Lord of the whole earth”, and “the Lord of all the earth”, and “For the LORD your God [is] God of gods, and Lord of lords”, show that God is seen as The Absolute Ruler and Power in the universe. Hardly of someone who is simply a “lord or master, or noble”! Interesting, that in the Greek Old Testament by Symmachus, at the end of the 2nd century, it says in Psalm 110:1, “The Lord said “τῷ δεσπότη μου”, which is not simply “Lord”, but of “Absolute Ruler”. The Greek “δεσπότης”, is from where we get our “Despot” from, which means, “a ruler with absolute power and authority” (Webster’s Dictionary). Colin Brown’s, New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, defines as, “despotes expresses the arbitrary, unlimited exercise of power without any real conditions”.

Verse 5 makes it very clear Who is “Adoni” is in verse 1. Here it reads:

“The Lord at your Right Hand”

Which is a further reference to “Adoni”, Who is at the Right Hand of “Yahweh”. In verse 5 the Hebrew word used in the greater majority of manuscripts, is “Adonay”, and not “Adoni”. “Adonay” is always used in the Old Testament for Almighty God, and never for any humans or heavenly beings. There are about 20 Hebrew Masoretic Text, that reads in verse 5, “Yahweh”. Either Name is that used for the Eternal, Unchanging, Self-Existing, God of the Holy Bible. And here it is clearly used for the Lord Jesus Christ!

Some, who cannot accept the fact, that Jesus Christ is here identified as Almighty God, have suggested that verse 5 does not mean what it actually says. As Dr Cheyen says in his Commentary:

“The description in vv. 2, 3 is resumed. The Lord is Jehovah (surely not the king), who is invisibly standing at His viceroy's right hand” (p.303)

Others try to read, “the Lord is at your Right Hand”, which is not in the Hebrew.

The “Yahweh” of verse 1, now changes places with “Adon”, and is on His Right Hand! This is no more than conjecture and the rejection of what the Bible plainly Teaches. There is NO Scripture passage that says that God the Father is at the Right Hand of Jesus Christ. What it does say in verse 5, is that the “Adon”, which some of the Masoretic manuscripts, by the Jews, read “Yahweh”, is COEQUAL with “Yahweh”. Verse one can be translated as “Yahweh says to my Yahweh”.

The passages in the Gospels, when read with Psalm 110, is one of the clearest and strongest, testimonies by The Lord Jesus Christ, on His Absolute Deity. These passages also show that the God of the Holy Bible is not “Unitarian”, as there are here TWO distinct “Persons” Who are EQUALLY Almighty God.
 
Greetings ICHTHUS,
This is THE most Important question that any human being can ever be asked, “What do you think about the Christ?. The answer to this question will determine the eternal destiny of every human, depending on what their answer is. Who is Jesus Christ?
I agree in general with your first three paragraphs, but I suggest that you have misquoted or misrepresented what Jesus actually asked as Jesus did not ask "What do you think about the Christ?" or "Who is Jesus Christ?", rather he said "What think ye of Christ? whose son is he?":
Matthew 22:41–46 (KJV): 41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, 42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David. 43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying, 44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? 45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? 46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.
I suggest that Trinitarians like to misquote this passage or misrepresent what Jesus actually asked. Trinitarians do not really believe that Jesus is the Son of God, even though they mouth these words. They believe that Jesus is God the Son.

The same occurred to me some 60 years ago when I was invited by one member of a lunchtime religious group to attend, but soon after I was told that other members objected because I did not accept the Trinity. They asked that I should be interviewed by a senior member and he asked "What think ye of Christ?" and my answer was "He is the Son of God". As a result, I was not allowed to attend the meeting. The member who invited me eventually became a Baptist Minister.
It is clear from these passages, that Jesus Christ is here claiming for Himself, Absolute Deity, as Yahweh, and fully equal with God the Father.
I disagree here. In answer to the question: "What think ye of Christ, whose son is he?" my answer He is The Son of God. He is claiming to be David's Lord, the Son of God, not Yahweh who in Psalm 110:1 is the One God, God the Father.
Verse one can be translated as “Yahweh says to my Yahweh”.
The rest of your post finally arrives at the above claim, but this is not what Psalm 110:1 teaches. Psalm 110:1 is one of the most quoted and expounded in the NT, but none of these would substantiate your wrong translation. Perhaps one of the most definitive quotations or allusions to Psalm 110:1 is the following, which does not support the Trinity.
Revelation 3:21–22 (KJV): 21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne. 22 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings ICHTHUS,

I agree in general with your first three paragraphs, but I suggest that you have misquoted or misrepresented what Jesus actually asked as Jesus did not ask "What do you think about the Christ?" or "Who is Jesus Christ?", rather he said "What think ye of Christ? whose son is he?":
Matthew 22:41–46 (KJV): 41 While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, 42 Saying, What think ye of Christ? whose son is he? They say unto him, The Son of David. 43 He saith unto them, How then doth David in spirit call him Lord, saying, 44 The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, till I make thine enemies thy footstool? 45 If David then call him Lord, how is he his son? 46 And no man was able to answer him a word, neither durst any man from that day forth ask him any more questions.
I suggest that Trinitarians like to misquote this passage or misrepresent what Jesus actually asked. Trinitarians do not really believe that Jesus is the Son of God, even though they mouth these words. They believe that Jesus is God the Son.

The same occurred to me some 60 years ago when I was invited by one member of a lunchtime religious group to attend, but soon after I was told that other members objected because I did not accept the Trinity. They asked that I should be interviewed by a senior member and he asked "What think ye of Christ?" and my answer was "He is the Son of God". As a result, I was not allowed to attend the meeting. The member who invited me eventually became a Baptist Minister.

I disagree here. In answer to the question: "What think ye of Christ, whose son is he?" my answer He is The Son of God. He is claiming to be David's Lord, the Son of God, not Yahweh who in Psalm 110:1 is the One God, God the Father.

The rest of your post finally arrives at the above claim, but this is not what Psalm 110:1 teaches. Psalm 110:1 is one of the most quoted and expounded in the NT, but none of these would substantiate your wrong translation. Perhaps one of the most definitive quotations or allusions to Psalm 110:1 is the following, which does not support the Trinity.
Revelation 3:21–22 (KJV): 21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne. 22 He that hath an ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches.

Kind regards
Trevor

I have just noticed that you are also on the other forum! Here is my response from there

Why not deal with what I said in the OP, on verse 5? As I have shown, there are about 20 Hebrew manuscripts, which are not the work of Christians, but the Masoretic Jews, where it reads: "YHWH at Your Right Hand". We have just seen from verse 1, that there are TWO distinct Persons, "YHWH and Adoni", both equal Names of Almighty God. It is clear from here and the many quotes of this verse in the New Testament, that "Adoni! refers to Jesus Christ. So, in verse 5, the same ADONI is now referred to as YHWH. This means, whatever is true of God the Father, is equally true for the Lord Jesus Christ. It is clear that this verse, as others in this Pslam was corrupted by the Jews, who saw a clear reference to Jesus Christ, as the Messiah, Who they reject. Now deal with this.
 
Greetings again ICHTHUS,
I have just noticed that you are also on the other forum! Here is my response from there
My first reply was on WhiteHorse and then I went to the other forum and had some trouble copying the same reply to that forum. I suppose there are some different members on each of the forums.
Why not deal with what I said in the OP, on verse 5?
I did not deal with it because you used a couple of incorrect logic steps to avoid what Psalm 110:1 says and what the NT expounds concerning this verse. You ended up as a result with "Verse one can be translated as “Yahweh says to my Yahweh” ", which is obviously where you want to arrive at to prove the Trinity, but this is a wrong translation of Psalm 110:1. Here is another NT exposition which clearly teaches that God has made Jesus "Lord", not Yahweh. You cannot create or award someone to be God or Yahweh.
Acts 2:22–36 (KJV): 22 Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: 23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain: 24 Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it.
29 Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day. 30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; 31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. 32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. 33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. 34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, 35 Until I make thy foes thy footstool. 36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.


Kind regards
Trevor
 
Greetings again ICHTHUS,

My first reply was on WhiteHorse and then I went to the other forum and had some trouble copying the same reply to that forum. I suppose there are some different members on each of the forums.

I did not deal with it because you used a couple of incorrect logic steps to avoid what Psalm 110:1 says and what the NT expounds concerning this verse. You ended up as a result with "Verse one can be translated as “Yahweh says to my Yahweh” ", which is obviously where you want to arrive at to prove the Trinity, but this is a wrong translation of Psalm 110:1. Here is another NT exposition which clearly teaches that God has made Jesus "Lord", not Yahweh. You cannot create or award someone to be God or Yahweh.
Acts 2:22–36 (KJV): 22 Ye men of Israel, hear these words; Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God among you by miracles and wonders and signs, which God did by him in the midst of you, as ye yourselves also know: 23 Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain: 24 Whom God hath raised up, having loosed the pains of death: because it was not possible that he should be holden of it.
29 Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day. 30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne; 31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell, neither his flesh did see corruption. 32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses. 33 Therefore being by the right hand of God exalted, and having received of the Father the promise of the Holy Spirit, he hath shed forth this, which ye now see and hear. 34 For David is not ascended into the heavens: but he saith himself, The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, 35 Until I make thy foes thy footstool. 36 Therefore let all the house of Israel know assuredly, that God hath made that same Jesus, whom ye have crucified, both Lord and Christ.


Kind regards
Trevor

I could be wrong (old age), are you the person who is a "Unitarian"? This means that you deny the distinction of Persons between the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. This being the case, how do you account for the passages that you quote, like where it says, "being by the Right Hand of God", and "sit Thou on My Right Side"? Clearly this can only mean that The Father and Jesus Christ cannot be one and the same Person. It is exactly as it reads in others places, like John 1:1, "and The Word was WITH (besides, near) God....and The Word was God". This cannot ever mean in the original Greek, that "God" and "The Word", Who is also God, are identical Persons.
 
Greetings again ICHTHUS,
I could be wrong (old age), are you the person who is a "Unitarian"? This means that you deny the distinction of Persons between the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. This being the case, how do you account for the passages that you quote, like where it says, "being by the Right Hand of God", and "sit Thou on My Right Side"? Clearly this can only mean that The Father and Jesus Christ cannot be one and the same Person.
I am not sure if it is old age, but you seem to be confused between Unitarianism and Oneness Pentecostalism. I am not what is normally historically described as Unitarianism. I believe that there are two distinct Beings. There is One God, Yahweh, God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ is a man, now glorified, the Son of God. This agrees with Psalm 110:1, but Psalm 110:1 does not agree with Trintarianism.

Kind regards
Trevor
 
Question seemed repetitive of previous chat we had so I removed it. Sorry Trev
 
Last edited by a moderator:
“Now while the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them a question, saying, “What do you think about the Christ? Whose Son is He?” They said to him, “The son of David.”( Matthew 22:41-42). How can the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David? David himself, in the Holy Spirit, declared, ‘The Lord said to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I put your enemies under your feet.” David himself calls him Lord. So how is he his son?” And the great throng heard him gladly.” (Mark 12:35-37). And no one was able to answer him a word, nor from that day did anyone dare to ask him any more questions” (Matthew 22:46)”

This is THE most Important question that any human being can ever be asked, “What do you think about the Christ?. The answer to this question will determine the eternal destiny of every human, depending on what their answer is. Who is Jesus Christ? To these Jews, Jesus says, “what do you think about The Messiah”, “Ho Christos” being the Greek equivalent to the Hebrew, “Mashiach”.

Jesus is not here denying that He is “The Son of David”, which means that His human line came from David. This is confirmed in the very first verse in the Gospel of Matthew. Those who heard Jesus preach, often called out to Him, “"Have mercy on us, Son of David!" (Matthew 9:27; 15:22; 20:30, etc). To which Jesus never objected. The Term, “The Son of David”, was known as a Title of the Messiah at this time, as we read in Matthew 12:23, “All the crowds were amazed, and were saying, “This man cannot be the Son of David, can he?”. And, “Has not the Scripture said that the Christ comes from the descendants of David, and from Bethlehem, the village where David was?” (John 7:42). These first century Jews knew what it meant by “The Son of David”.

In these passages in the Gospels, Jesus is quoting from the Old Testament Psalm 110.

“The LORD said to My Lord…”

It is clear from these passages, that Jesus Christ is here claiming for Himself, Absolute Deity, as Yahweh, and fully equal with God the Father.

Psalm 110 is understood as Messianic, by the older Jewish commentators. Which is what the Jews in Jesus’ time would have known. As we see for verse 1:

“In the Midrash Tehillim on this passage, it is said, " God spake thus to the Messiah”” (J Stewart Perowne, The Book of Pslams, p.288)

John Gill says in his commentary, that the Targum of Jonathan reads in verse 1, “the Lord said to his Word”

Here we have, "The LORD (Yahweh) said”, “to My Lord (Adoni)” a direct address by Yahweh to Adon (the root word), which is masculine and singular. It is argued by some, that this Hebrew noun is used in the sense of “master, lord, sir, governor”, as a title of “respect” for a more “noble” person, and always only for humans, and never of God. As we shall see, that these arguments are misleading, and do not reflect the use of “Adon”, in the Bible.

The Masoretes punctuate verse one: “Adoni”, which is the singular noun and singular suffix, literally, “my lord”, or “my Lord”. This can be used for God as well as humans. The form “Adonai”, plural noun and singular suffix, literally, “my Lords”, or “Lord”, which is only used for God.

A website that is used to promote “Unitarianism” as the Bible’s Teaching of the God of the Bible, and is anti Trinitarian, says this on the use of “Adon” in this verse:

“The Hebrew word translated “my lord” is adoni (pronounced “Adon nee”) in the standard Hebrew texts. This word is always used in Scripture to describe human masters and lords, but never God...The difference between adon (the root word), adoni (“lord,” always used of men or angels) and adonai (which is used of God and sometimes written adonay) is critical to the understanding of Psalm 110:1.” (https://www.biblicalunitarian.com/verses/psalm-110-1)

Likewise, we have the argument used by a Jewish Rabbi:

“I should note that the second “lord” in Hebrew is not “ado-nai” – the term the Torah reserves for God, but “adoni”. The latter is a simple Hebrew word which means “my lord” but is not sacred. Throughout the Torah that word is used in reference to honored human beings but never to God, e.g. Genesis 18:3, 23:6, 24:18, 31:35, 33:8, 34:14, 44:18, etc. Thus, it was incorrectly capitalized in your translation. In fact, Hebrew has no capital letters so capitalizations which are found in English translations are merely based on translators’ assumptions, and as you can see, are not always reliable.” (Rabbi Dovid Rosenfeld; https://www.aish.com/atr/Psalm-110-Two-Lords.html)

Are these comments factually right? The evidence from the Old Testament itself, will show that these two websites are here are completely wrong. There are many instances in the Old Testament, where “Adon” is used for Almighty God. In Exodus 23:17, “the Lord (Adon) GOD”; Exodus 34:23, “before the Lord (Adon) GOD, the God of Israel”; Joshua 3:11, 13, “the Lord (Adon) of all the earth”; Psalm 97:5, “the Lord (Adon) of the whole earth”; Psalm 114:7 reads, “Tremble, thou earth, at the presence of the Lord (Adon)”; Isaiah 1:24, 3:1, 10:16, 10:33, 19:4, “the Lord (Adon), the LORD of hosts”; Isaiah 51:22, “Thus saith thy Lord (Adon) the LORD, and thy God”; Micah 4:13, “the Lord (Adon) of the whole earth”; Zechariah 4:14, “the Lord (Adon) of the whole earth”; 6:5, “the Lord (Adon) of all the earth”. In Deuteronomy 10:17, we read: “O give thanks to the Lord of lords”; and Psalm 136:3, it says: “For the LORD your God [is] God of gods, and Lord of lords”. In the Hebrew, where it says “Lord”, and “lord”, in its 4 uses, the word used is, “Adon”. They are in the masculine plural, literally, “master of masters”. So, to say that “Adon”, “is always used in Scripture to describe human masters and lords, but never God”, as these websites do, is downright misleading.

It matters not whether it reads as it does in Psalm 110:1, as “my Lord”, or, as in Isaiah 51:22, “thy Lord”, or, simply “the Lord”. Each case the root word is the same in the Hebrew, “Adon”. And we have clear uses of this word for the Lord God in the Old Testament, and not as some suggest, only used for humans.

Verses that use “Adon” in these contexts, “the Lord of the whole earth”, and “the Lord of all the earth”, and “For the LORD your God [is] God of gods, and Lord of lords”, show that God is seen as The Absolute Ruler and Power in the universe. Hardly of someone who is simply a “lord or master, or noble”! Interesting, that in the Greek Old Testament by Symmachus, at the end of the 2nd century, it says in Psalm 110:1, “The Lord said “τῷ δεσπότη μου”, which is not simply “Lord”, but of “Absolute Ruler”. The Greek “δεσπότης”, is from where we get our “Despot” from, which means, “a ruler with absolute power and authority” (Webster’s Dictionary). Colin Brown’s, New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology, defines as, “despotes expresses the arbitrary, unlimited exercise of power without any real conditions”.

Verse 5 makes it very clear Who is “Adoni” is in verse 1. Here it reads:

“The Lord at your Right Hand”

Which is a further reference to “Adoni”, Who is at the Right Hand of “Yahweh”. In verse 5 the Hebrew word used in the greater majority of manuscripts, is “Adonay”, and not “Adoni”. “Adonay” is always used in the Old Testament for Almighty God, and never for any humans or heavenly beings. There are about 20 Hebrew Masoretic Text, that reads in verse 5, “Yahweh”. Either Name is that used for the Eternal, Unchanging, Self-Existing, God of the Holy Bible. And here it is clearly used for the Lord Jesus Christ!

Some, who cannot accept the fact, that Jesus Christ is here identified as Almighty God, have suggested that verse 5 does not mean what it actually says. As Dr Cheyen says in his Commentary:

“The description in vv. 2, 3 is resumed. The Lord is Jehovah (surely not the king), who is invisibly standing at His viceroy's right hand” (p.303)

Others try to read, “the Lord is at your Right Hand”, which is not in the Hebrew.

The “Yahweh” of verse 1, now changes places with “Adon”, and is on His Right Hand! This is no more than conjecture and the rejection of what the Bible plainly Teaches. There is NO Scripture passage that says that God the Father is at the Right Hand of Jesus Christ. What it does say in verse 5, is that the “Adon”, which some of the Masoretic manuscripts, by the Jews, read “Yahweh”, is COEQUAL with “Yahweh”. Verse one can be translated as “Yahweh says to my Yahweh”.

The passages in the Gospels, when read with Psalm 110, is one of the clearest and strongest, testimonies by The Lord Jesus Christ, on His Absolute Deity. These passages also show that the God of the Holy Bible is not “Unitarian”, as there are here TWO distinct “Persons” Who are EQUALLY Almighty God.

The original hebrew in Psalms 110:1 uses the tetragrammaton here (YHWH, the divine name, represented by all capitals 'LORD' in some english christian bibles) which is clearly seperate and distinct from the 'lord' (adoni) in the passage, so claiming these two are the same 'being' is illogical, besides nonsensical. This passage does not prove the 'lord' spoken of is YHWH himself, again....pretty absurd. - the psalm written by david or another writer is simply referring to his 'lord' , which in this case could be 'Abraham' or 'David' himself.....or a future yet to come 'Messiah' (note all the enemies of 'God' have yet to be defeated, and the universal reign of the Messiah is not yet, if we would go by the traditional signs presumed by Orthodox Judaism).

We would also reiterate, nowhere in the passage is the 'Messiah' said to be YHWH himself; for it is the word or oracle of YHWH which declares the psalmist's 'lord' to have victory over his enemies. The 'lord' or 'leader' of the psalmist serves in his role or function as Yahweh's anointed (whether human or angel), so he of course represents YHWH. A Unitarian perspective is very logical here if we take it literally and simply.


One can entertain or believe the Messiah to be in some way 'divine' but this passage is a pretty weak proof-text showing the Messiah's divinity (let alone there being some kind of 'Trinity' existing), for only 'God' is 'God' in the absolute and proper sense, while 'God' has many servants that he uses to fulfill his desires.

The Messiah or any messiah for that matter may serve at God's right hand, for a messiah serves as God's AGENT, in any context or office regarding God's activity and government in human affairs. The key here is 'agency', and YHWH shall accomplish such thru human vessels (or angels). - it is all by God's grace and empowering, as He is the only source for anything and everything. All of us have a place in this kingdom for we are his temple and the body of the 'Messiah' in the earth. It is by God's power and 'anointing' that he brings to pass his purposes, thru his anointed agents/agencies. - this is the key, we are instruments of His spirit, whether he accomplishes this thru a head or primary 'Messiah' figure, or thru a company of anointed ones, - we are all part of the 'Messiah', as the head cannot be seperate from the 'body' corporate, which includes all the individuals that make up the collective.


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Translations respecting the divine name (YHWH) as distinct from 'adoni' (lord) in the text -


A Psalm of David. The affirmation of Jehovah to my Lord: `Sit at My right hand, Till I make thine enemies thy footstool.' - YLT

A Psalm by David. Yahweh says to my Lord, “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool for your feet.” - WEB

Psalm of David. Jehovah said unto my Lord, Sit at my right hand, until I put thine enemies [as] footstool of thy feet. - Darby

A Psalm of David. Jehovah saith unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, Until I make thine enemies thy footstool. - ASV

Of David. A psalm. A declaration of Yahweh to my lord, “Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies your footstool.” - LEB

Jehovah said to my Lord the Messiah, “Rule as my regent—I will subdue your enemies and make them bow low before you.” - TLB


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Greetings again ICHTHUS,

I am not sure if it is old age, but you seem to be confused between Unitarianism and Oneness Pentecostalism. I am not what is normally historically described as Unitarianism. I believe that there are two distinct Beings. There is One God, Yahweh, God the Father and our Lord Jesus Christ is a man, now glorified, the Son of God. This agrees with Psalm 110:1, but Psalm 110:1 does not agree with Trintarianism.

Kind regards
Trevor

Psalm 110, verses 1 and 5 shows that there are TWO Persons Who are called YHWH, which Name the Hebrew and English Lexicon, by F Brown, S R Driver and C A Briggs, we read of "Yahweh, the proper name of the God of Israel...the one bringing into being, life-giver, giver of existence, creator, he who brings to pass...he who causes...the one who is: i.e. the absolute and unchangeable one, the existing, ever-living" (pages 217-218)

As I have already shown, in verse 5 there is the reading, which I believe to have been the original, and was corrupted by the Jews to remove any OT reference to the Deity of Jesus Christ. Here it reads: "YHWH at Your Right Hand", Who in verse 1 is said to have another Name of God, which is "Adoni".

How can anyone not accept what the Bible very clearly Teaches, that there is more than One Person Who is called YHWH, which is the Name for Almighty God?
 
How can anyone not accept what the Bible very clearly Teaches, that there is more than One Person Who is called YHWH, which is the Name for Almighty God?
How can you accept what the Bible teaches, when it is written that it is the Holy Ghost who will teach you all things.

Have you read the parable of the the book in the scriptures? A book is given to one man who is asked to read it and he replies that he cannot because he hasn't learned how to read. The book is then given to another man who has been taught how to read who is asked read it, you might check out what his response was to the request for him to read it.

So did the Bible teach you how to read?
 
How can you accept what the Bible teaches, when it is written that it is the Holy Ghost who will teach you all things.

Have you read the parable of the the book in the scriptures? A book is given to one man who is asked to read it and he replies that he cannot because he hasn't learned how to read. The book is then given to another man who has been taught how to read who is asked read it, you might check out what his response was to the request for him to read it.

So did the Bible teach you how to read?

The Holy Bible, in Its 66 Books, in the Original Autographs, are 100% Inspired by God the Holy Spirit. In fact, we have 2 Peter 1:21

"For no prophecy was ever produced by the will of man, but men spoke from God as they were carried along by the Holy Spirit"

Where the words "were carried along", are from the Greek participle, "φερόμενοι", which is in the passive voice. Which makes the Writers of the 66 Books, instruments of God the Holy Spirit, and their Writings, to be the Words of Almighty God.

The Holy Bible is 100% Trustworthy, because it is the Infallible, Inerrant Word of Almighty God to the human race. You can only get this assurance and conviction, after being "born again" by God the Holy Spirit, Who will lead you into His Truth.

No human mind apart from the Holy Spirit, can understand this Truth
 
How can you accept what the Bible teaches, when it is written that it is the Holy Ghost who will teach you all things.

Have you read the parable of the the book in the scriptures? A book is given to one man who is asked to read it and he replies that he cannot because he hasn't learned how to read. The book is then given to another man who has been taught how to read who is asked read it, you might check out what his response was to the request for him to read it.

So did the Bible teach you how to read?

When questioned-- "Where do you get your teaching, having never been educated?"


But when it was now the midst of the feast Jesus went up into the temple, and began to teach. The Jews then were astonished, saying, “How has this man become learned, having never been educated?” So Jesus answered them and said, “My teaching is not Mine, but His who sent Me. “If anyone is willing to do His will, he will know of the teaching, whether it is of God or whether I speak from Myself. “He who speaks from himself seeks his own glory; but He who is seeking the glory of the One who sent Him, He is true, and there is no unrighteousness in Him.
 
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