I
ICHTHUS
Guest
John 20:28
“και απεκριθη ο θωμας και ειπεν αυτω ο κυριος μου και ο θεος μου”
“And answered Thomas and said to Him, My Lord and My God”
This is one of the clearest and strongest passages in the Bible, on the absolute Deity of The Lord Jesus Christ. It is no wonder that it has been attacked by those who oppose this great Bible Truth.
In the first place, there are some who suppose, like the Jehovah’s Witnesses do, that when Thomas responds to Jesus, he looks directly at Jesus, and says to Him, “My Lord”. Then Thomas is supposed to look towards heaven, and say, “My God”. Look again at what is actually written in this verse, “ειπεν αυτω”, Thomas “says to HIM”, which is in the SINGULAR in the Greek, meaning ONE PERSON. John does not say, “ο θωμας και ειπεν αὐτοῖς”, which is the plural, “and Thomas said to them”. Nor is there even a suggestion in this passage, that Thomas did what is assumed here. It is no doubt that such fanciful assumptions, are made by those who cannot accept that the Bible plainly Teaches, that Jesus Christ is Almighty God.
In the second place, we have a point of Greek grammar to consider. Are the words, “ο κυριος μου και ο θεος μου”, to understood as a “direct address” to Jesus Christ? The words are in the nominative, in the Greek, which here is known as “the nominative of direct address”, being the equivalent of the vocative case. It is not to be understood in John 20:28, as “an exclamation”, as suggested by some, and so used in many of the modern English Bibles.
The Unitarian Greek scholar, Dr George Winer, admits that the words are “directed to Jesus (εἶπεν αὐτῷ)” (Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, p. 228), but goes on to say, “is yet rather an exclamation than address”. Dr Winer is correct in saying that the words are directed at Jesus Christ, which is correct Greek, but then gives his personal theological opinion, as he cannot accept that Jesus Christ is God. By saying that Thomas’ response was an “exclamation”, it can be seen as “astonishment”. He does the same for Titus 2:13, where he says that grammatically the words, “τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ καὶ Σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ” (our Great God and Saviour Jesus Christ), refer to one Person, Jesus Christ, but theologically he cannot accept that Paul could call Jesus Christ “the Great God” (page 162). Like the Jehovah’s Witnesses, Dr Winer rejects what the Bible actually teaches, because of their personal beliefs.
In the third place, we have the construction of the clause in the Greek, “ο θεος μου”. Here we have “θεος”, used for Jesus Christ, with the definite article, “ο” (ο θεος). There are some, like the early Church heretic, Origen, who said of the use of the Greek article with “θεος”, that, “The Logos, therefore, is fitly called not ο θεος, but θεος simply” (Dr R S Franks, The Doctrine of the Trinity, p. 93). Thereby paying the way for the other heretics, like Arius, and the present day Jehovah’s Witnesses.
It is argued by some who deny the Deity of Jesus Christ, that because in the Greek, we here have the nominative case, used as a vocative, that it requires the article. They quote the scholar, Dr Moule, in their support:
“In John xx.28 Ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου, it is to be noted that a substantive in the Nominative case used in a vocative sense and followed by a possessive could not be anarthrous (see Hoskyns and Davey, Commentary, in loc); the article before Θεός may, therefore, not be significant” (Dr C F D Moule, An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, p.116)
Is this completely right? Does the nominative, when used as a vocative, always require that the Greek article is used? I looked up verses in the Greek Old Testament, the Septuagint (LXX), in the Book of Psalms, and found this is not always the case.
Psalm 118:28, “Θεὸς μου εἶ σύ, καὶ ἐξομολογήσομαί σοι· Θεὸς μου εἶ σύ, καὶ ὑψώσω σε· ἐξομολογήσομαί σοι, ὅτι ἐπήκουσάς μου, καὶ ἐγένου μοι εἰς σωτηρίαν”
“You are my God, and I will give thanks to you. You are my God, I will exalt you”
Psalm 22:10, “ἐπὶ σὲ ἐπερρίφην ἐκ μήτρας, ἐκ κοιλίας μητρός μου θεός μου εἶ σύ”
“I was thrown on you from my mother’s womb. From out of the belly of my mother, my God You are”
Psalm 89:26, “αὐτὸς ἐπικαλέσεταί με Πατήρ μου εἶ σύ, θεός μου καὶ ἀντιλήμπτωρ τῆς σωτηρίας μου”
“He will call to Me, ‘You are my Father, my God, and the Rock of my salvation”
In these examples, we have the nominative, “Θεὸς μου”, and “Πατήρ μου θεός μου”, which are used in the vocative, in direct address, where the Greek article is not used. No one would translate these verses, “You are my god”, and “You are my father, my god”?
It is clear from Thomas’ words as recorded by the Apostle John, that he directly addressed Jesus Christ, as “My LORD and My GOD”, where “ο κυριος”, is the equivalent to “Yahweh”.
In the fourth place, a very important point about Thomas’ response to Jesus Christ, is that fact that Jesus did not rebuke him for saying, “ὁ Θεός μου”. If as some falsely teach, that Jesus Christ is no more than a created being, and inferior to God the Father, then there can be no doubt, that Jesus would have rebuked Thomas, for calling Him “ὁ Θεός μου”, when He is a created being, like Thomas, even though higher, as the Father’s Representative on earth. Jesus would not have allowed this to have been unchallenged by Him, IF Thomas were wrong. This fact shows beyond any doubt, that Jesus accepted as TRUE Thomas calling Him, ὁ Θεός μου”. See the passages in Acts 14:13-15; Revelation 22:8-9.
In the fifth place, we have the words that Jesus spoke to Thomas,
“Jesus said to him, "Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.” (verse 29)
Jesus here commends Thomas for his faith in Him, not rebuke him for his error in calling Him “ὁ Θεός μου”, as some would have use believe. Jesus’ words to Thomas, can be paraphrased as, “you believe Me to be your Lord and God, because you have seen Me as Risen from the dead, happy are those who do not have the great privilege in actually seeing what you do, and yet will believe Me”
There is no doubt to those who will simply accept what the Bible says, that in this wonderful passage about “Doubting Thomas”, that he in faith saw Jesus Christ as his “LORD and GOD”. Only those who reject the absolute Deity of The Lord Jesus Christ, will try to find ways to change the meaning of the Bible. They cannot succeed against the Infallible, Inerrant, Word of Almighty God.
For those who say that Jesus Christ never claimed to be GOD, this passage clearly destroys their argument.
“και απεκριθη ο θωμας και ειπεν αυτω ο κυριος μου και ο θεος μου”
“And answered Thomas and said to Him, My Lord and My God”
This is one of the clearest and strongest passages in the Bible, on the absolute Deity of The Lord Jesus Christ. It is no wonder that it has been attacked by those who oppose this great Bible Truth.
In the first place, there are some who suppose, like the Jehovah’s Witnesses do, that when Thomas responds to Jesus, he looks directly at Jesus, and says to Him, “My Lord”. Then Thomas is supposed to look towards heaven, and say, “My God”. Look again at what is actually written in this verse, “ειπεν αυτω”, Thomas “says to HIM”, which is in the SINGULAR in the Greek, meaning ONE PERSON. John does not say, “ο θωμας και ειπεν αὐτοῖς”, which is the plural, “and Thomas said to them”. Nor is there even a suggestion in this passage, that Thomas did what is assumed here. It is no doubt that such fanciful assumptions, are made by those who cannot accept that the Bible plainly Teaches, that Jesus Christ is Almighty God.
In the second place, we have a point of Greek grammar to consider. Are the words, “ο κυριος μου και ο θεος μου”, to understood as a “direct address” to Jesus Christ? The words are in the nominative, in the Greek, which here is known as “the nominative of direct address”, being the equivalent of the vocative case. It is not to be understood in John 20:28, as “an exclamation”, as suggested by some, and so used in many of the modern English Bibles.
The Unitarian Greek scholar, Dr George Winer, admits that the words are “directed to Jesus (εἶπεν αὐτῷ)” (Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, p. 228), but goes on to say, “is yet rather an exclamation than address”. Dr Winer is correct in saying that the words are directed at Jesus Christ, which is correct Greek, but then gives his personal theological opinion, as he cannot accept that Jesus Christ is God. By saying that Thomas’ response was an “exclamation”, it can be seen as “astonishment”. He does the same for Titus 2:13, where he says that grammatically the words, “τοῦ μεγάλου Θεοῦ καὶ Σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ” (our Great God and Saviour Jesus Christ), refer to one Person, Jesus Christ, but theologically he cannot accept that Paul could call Jesus Christ “the Great God” (page 162). Like the Jehovah’s Witnesses, Dr Winer rejects what the Bible actually teaches, because of their personal beliefs.
In the third place, we have the construction of the clause in the Greek, “ο θεος μου”. Here we have “θεος”, used for Jesus Christ, with the definite article, “ο” (ο θεος). There are some, like the early Church heretic, Origen, who said of the use of the Greek article with “θεος”, that, “The Logos, therefore, is fitly called not ο θεος, but θεος simply” (Dr R S Franks, The Doctrine of the Trinity, p. 93). Thereby paying the way for the other heretics, like Arius, and the present day Jehovah’s Witnesses.
It is argued by some who deny the Deity of Jesus Christ, that because in the Greek, we here have the nominative case, used as a vocative, that it requires the article. They quote the scholar, Dr Moule, in their support:
“In John xx.28 Ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου, it is to be noted that a substantive in the Nominative case used in a vocative sense and followed by a possessive could not be anarthrous (see Hoskyns and Davey, Commentary, in loc); the article before Θεός may, therefore, not be significant” (Dr C F D Moule, An Idiom Book of New Testament Greek, p.116)
Is this completely right? Does the nominative, when used as a vocative, always require that the Greek article is used? I looked up verses in the Greek Old Testament, the Septuagint (LXX), in the Book of Psalms, and found this is not always the case.
Psalm 118:28, “Θεὸς μου εἶ σύ, καὶ ἐξομολογήσομαί σοι· Θεὸς μου εἶ σύ, καὶ ὑψώσω σε· ἐξομολογήσομαί σοι, ὅτι ἐπήκουσάς μου, καὶ ἐγένου μοι εἰς σωτηρίαν”
“You are my God, and I will give thanks to you. You are my God, I will exalt you”
Psalm 22:10, “ἐπὶ σὲ ἐπερρίφην ἐκ μήτρας, ἐκ κοιλίας μητρός μου θεός μου εἶ σύ”
“I was thrown on you from my mother’s womb. From out of the belly of my mother, my God You are”
Psalm 89:26, “αὐτὸς ἐπικαλέσεταί με Πατήρ μου εἶ σύ, θεός μου καὶ ἀντιλήμπτωρ τῆς σωτηρίας μου”
“He will call to Me, ‘You are my Father, my God, and the Rock of my salvation”
In these examples, we have the nominative, “Θεὸς μου”, and “Πατήρ μου θεός μου”, which are used in the vocative, in direct address, where the Greek article is not used. No one would translate these verses, “You are my god”, and “You are my father, my god”?
It is clear from Thomas’ words as recorded by the Apostle John, that he directly addressed Jesus Christ, as “My LORD and My GOD”, where “ο κυριος”, is the equivalent to “Yahweh”.
In the fourth place, a very important point about Thomas’ response to Jesus Christ, is that fact that Jesus did not rebuke him for saying, “ὁ Θεός μου”. If as some falsely teach, that Jesus Christ is no more than a created being, and inferior to God the Father, then there can be no doubt, that Jesus would have rebuked Thomas, for calling Him “ὁ Θεός μου”, when He is a created being, like Thomas, even though higher, as the Father’s Representative on earth. Jesus would not have allowed this to have been unchallenged by Him, IF Thomas were wrong. This fact shows beyond any doubt, that Jesus accepted as TRUE Thomas calling Him, ὁ Θεός μου”. See the passages in Acts 14:13-15; Revelation 22:8-9.
In the fifth place, we have the words that Jesus spoke to Thomas,
“Jesus said to him, "Jesus said to him, “Have you believed because you have seen me? Blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.” (verse 29)
Jesus here commends Thomas for his faith in Him, not rebuke him for his error in calling Him “ὁ Θεός μου”, as some would have use believe. Jesus’ words to Thomas, can be paraphrased as, “you believe Me to be your Lord and God, because you have seen Me as Risen from the dead, happy are those who do not have the great privilege in actually seeing what you do, and yet will believe Me”
There is no doubt to those who will simply accept what the Bible says, that in this wonderful passage about “Doubting Thomas”, that he in faith saw Jesus Christ as his “LORD and GOD”. Only those who reject the absolute Deity of The Lord Jesus Christ, will try to find ways to change the meaning of the Bible. They cannot succeed against the Infallible, Inerrant, Word of Almighty God.
For those who say that Jesus Christ never claimed to be GOD, this passage clearly destroys their argument.