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Luke 1:35 And The Real Human Nature of Jesus Christ

I

ICHTHUS

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“And the Angel answered and said vnto her, The holy Ghost shall come vpon thee, and the power of the Highest shall ouershadow thee. Therefore also that holy thing which shall bee borne of thee, shall bee called the sonne of God” (KJV 1611)

The greater majority of English Bible’s, omit two very important words in the verse, “ἐκ σοῦ”, literally, “out of you”, that is Mary. This is clear testimony against the early heretics, that Jesus Christ actually derived His “human nature”, from The Virgin Mary, apart from sin, which the Holy Spirit would have removed.

A few of the heretics in the early Church, actually denied that the “human nature” in Jesus Christ, at His Incarnation, and thereafter, is consubstantial with ours.

“The doctrines of Valentinus are described fully by Irenæus (I. cap. i.) from whom S. Cyril takes this account. Valentinus, and Basilides, and Bardesanes, and Harmonious, and those of their company admit Christ’s conception and birth of the Virgin, but say that God the Word received no addition from the Virgin, but made a sort of passage through her, as through a tube, and made use of a phantom in appearing to men.” (Theodoret, Epist. 145.)

"To docetic thinkers the divinity of Christ presented no difficulties. It was the humanity (with its close relation to matter) that they could not acknowledge. It was only the channel by which He came into the world 'Jesus', they said, 'passed through Mary as water through a tube'. He was 'through' or 'by means of', but not 'of' Mary; that is to say, He derived from her no part of His being. 'For, just as water passes through a pipe, without receiving any addition from the pipe, so too the Word passed through Mary, but was not derived from Mary" (J F Bethune-Baker; Early History of Christian Doctrine, pp.80-81)

The earliest Greek manuscript to have these words “ἐκ σοῦ”, is the 5th century Codex Ephraemi.

However, much before this time, we have this reading in Tatian’s Diatessaron, which was written originally in Greek, and dates between AD 150-170, which reads:

“Holy Spirit will come, and the power of the Most High shall rest upon thee, and therefore shall he that is born of thee be pure, and shall be called the Son of God”

We also have the explicit testimony of the following Church Fathers, who read “ἐκ σοῦ” in their New Testaments

JUSTIN MARTYR (A.D.100-165) - Dia Typh, Chapter C. ANF, p.249

“when the angel Gabriel announced the good tidings to her that the Spirit of the Lord would come upon her, and the power of the Highest would overshadow her: wherefore also the Holy Thing begotten of her is the Son of God”

IRENAEUS (A.D.130-200) - Adv Her Bk III.xxi.4

“The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee ; therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God ;"

TERTULLIAN (A.D.160-225) - Adv Prax xxvi, xxvii

“The Spirit of God shall come upon you, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow you; therefore also the Holy Thing that shall be born of you shall be called the Son of God”; Therefore that Holy Thing which shall be born of you shall be called the Son of God.

HIPPOLYTUS (A.D.170-236) - Adv all Her VI. xxx

“wherefore that which shall be born of you shall be called holy”

CYPRIAN (A.D.200-258) - Test against the Jews, sec 1

“Wherefore that holy thing which is born of thee shall be called the Son of God."

NOVATIAN (A.D.200-258), Concerning The Trinity, Ch. xxiv. 6 times.

“The Holy Spirit shall come upon you, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow you; therefore also the Holy Thing which is born of you shall be called the Son of God”

GREGORY THAUMATURGUS (A.D.213-270) - Twelve Topics on the Faith, Topic IV. 4 times

“The Holy Ghost shall come upon you, and the power of the highest shall overshadow you: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of you shall be called the Son of the Highest”

PETER OF ALEXANDRIA (d.A.D.311) - frag from the book on the Godhead; sermon of theology

“The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee; therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God” (2); “The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee; therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God." (9)

ATHANASIUS (A.D.296-373) - four Discourses against the Arians, Dis IV.32

“The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the Power of the Highest shall overshadow thee therefore also that Holy Thing which shall be born of thee, shall be called the Son of God .”

And many others.

It is also found in the Old Latin Versions, made from the Greek New Testament, and dates from the 2nd century. Also The Old Syriac Peshitta, 2nd cent. The scholar Jerome also includes this in his Revision of the Old Latin, the Vulgate.

Luke 1:35, with “ἐκ σοῦ”, which is the singular, and can only refer to Mary; is what Matthew writes in his Gospel:

“And Jacob fathered Joseph, the husband to be of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ”

The words, “of whom”, ἐξ ἧς, are singular and feminine, which excludes Joseph, the husband of Mary, as the biological father of Jesus Christ.

The removal of these two words at a very early time, was no doubt the work of those who rejected the real humanity in the Lord Jesus Christ. However, the evidence of the early Versions and Church Fathers, is evidence beyond any doubt, to “ἐκ σοῦ”, as being part of the original Gospel of Luke.

This is also important for the study of textual criticism, where it shows that too much weight must not be placed on the Greek manuscripts, which are the work of copyists, who could add or remove as they felt like, for theological purposes.
 
I read your whole post and missed your point if you had one. Are you arguing for, or against the humanity of Jesus?
 
I read your whole post and missed your point if you had one. Are you arguing for, or against the humanity of Jesus?

for the real "human nature", apart from sin, in the God-Man, Jesus Christ. Who is 100% God and 100% Man

you missed this in the OP

A few of the heretics in the early Church, actually denied that the “human nature” in Jesus Christ, at His Incarnation, and thereafter, is consubstantial with ours
 
for the real "human nature", apart from sin, in the God-Man, Jesus Christ. Who is 100% God and 100% Man

Regarding that 100% man part..... did he have any percentage more or less than any other 100% man ever born on earth?
 
Regarding that 100% man part..... did he have any percentage more or less than any other 100% man ever born on earth?

unlike all other human beings, the "human nature" of Jesus Christ is 100% sinless, incapable of sinning
 
unlike all other human beings, the "human nature" of Jesus Christ is 100% sinless, incapable of sinning

Ah.... so he had a little more than the average 100% human. Or did you mean he had a little less, in that he wasn't capable of something other 100 percenters could do?
 
Ah.... so he had a little more than the average 100% human. Or did you mean he had a little less, in that he wasn't capable of something other 100 percenters could do?

Jesus Christ IS Almighty God, and therefore without beginning or end, as He IS the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End, the Alpha and Omega. At His Conception in the Virgin Mary, He took upon Himself the "nature" of humans, complete, with the exception that He is 100% sinless. In this He is very much different to all humans, though His "human nature" is very real.

Philippians 2 says, "though existing from all eternity in the very nature of God, and conidered being equal with the Father, not something to be held on to, but He humbled Himself, by taking on the very nature of humans" (so the Greek)
 
Jesus Christ IS Almighty God, and therefore without beginning or end, as He IS the First and the Last, the Beginning and the End, the Alpha and Omega. At His Conception in the Virgin Mary, He took upon Himself the "nature" of humans, complete, with the exception that He is 100% sinless. In this He is very much different to all humans, though His "human nature" is very real.

Philippians 2 says, "though existing from all eternity in the very nature of God, and conidered being equal with the Father, not something to be held on to, but He humbled Himself, by taking on the very nature of humans" (so the Greek)

So he is neither equal to all other 100% humans, nor equal to God (according to Phil 2).

Do you see why absolute statements are an absolute waste of time? Your declarations are meaningless.
 
So he is neither equal to all other 100% humans, nor equal to God (according to Phil 2).

Do you see why absolute statements are an absolute waste of time? Your declarations are meaningless.

Jesus Christ IS YHWH and 100% EQUAL to God the Father and the Holy Spirit. During His time on earth, Jesus became "subject" to the Father, and returned to His former Glorious equal position which He always had with the Father from all eternity. This is clear from John 17:5.

Do you personally believe that Jesus Christ is Almighty God?
 
Jesus Christ IS YHWH and 100% EQUAL to God the Father and the Holy Spirit. During His time on earth, Jesus became "subject" to the Father, and returned to His former Glorious equal position which He always had with the Father from all eternity. This is clear from John 17:5.

Do you personally believe that Jesus Christ is Almighty God?

You just quoted scripture that confirms ‘from all eternity he wasn’t equal with the Father’ -That covers the God part. If they were both 100% God, why does scripture repeatedly draw a distinction? You’ll end up with 200%, or likely 300% God.

Secondly- and I’ve used the analogy so many times even I’m tired of it- but even children understand that if you take two different things- one of these things is not like the other, even if you consider them so.

A bottle of wine is one thing, but the bottle is not the wine and the wine is not the bottle. One is in the other. And that’s how I view Jesus.
 
You just quoted scripture that confirms ‘from all eternity he wasn’t equal with the Father’ -That covers the God part. If they were both 100% God, why does scripture repeatedly draw a distinction? You’ll end up with 200%, or likely 300% God.

Secondly- and I’ve used the analogy so many times even I’m tired of it- but even children understand that if you take two different things- one of these things is not like the other, even if you consider them so.

A bottle of wine is one thing, but the bottle is not the wine and the wine is not the bottle. One is in the other. And that’s how I view Jesus.

Is Jesus Christ Almighty God, YHWH and 100% COEQUAL to God the Father and God the Holy Spirit?

Simple yes or no
 
for the real "human nature", apart from sin, in the God-Man, Jesus Christ. Who is 100% God and 100% Man

you missed this in the OP

A few of the heretics in the early Church, actually denied that the “human nature” in Jesus Christ, at His Incarnation, and thereafter, is consubstantial with ours
Where is that in the Bible?
 
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