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7thMoon
Guest
Son, you only think you know it.as I said, prove me wrong IF you can, and you tried, and FAILED because you do NOT know Greek grammar!
Son, you only think you know it.as I said, prove me wrong IF you can, and you tried, and FAILED because you do NOT know Greek grammar!
Son, you only think you know it.
You don't even know the basics of the Greek article. Just because a verse is translated a certain way in Tyndale's New Testament doesn't mean you should translate it that way forever. Names are definite without the article which implies the article does the opposite of what the books say.PROVE all things! PROVE me wrong? You CANNOT and not humble enough to admit that you are 100% WRONG!
You don't even know the basics of the Greek article. Just because a verse is translated a certain way in Tyndale's New Testament doesn't mean you should translate it that way forever. Names are definite without the article which implies the article does the opposite of what the books say.
In this very small Letter in the New Testament, John's Third, we have a very powerful testimony to the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, and His complete equality with The Father.
"Anyone who transgresses, and abides not in the teaching of Christ, has not God. He that abides in the teaching of Christ, this has both the Father and the Son" – verse 9
Note very closely....
No 'Holy Ghost'.
And those that remain in have both Jehovah and Jesus!
I have my Lord and my God!
Your vain attempt to promote church coprolite is also vain in this verse!
The fact remains that there are TWO distinct Persons in this verse, that are equally called GOD.
More gibberish from you.Father and Son and NOT Names! you cannot even understand the basics of Greek grammar!
More gibberish from you.
You can't prove John 1:1 shouldn't be translated "In the beginning, it was a Word, and then a Word it was with a God, and then the God...."you would about that!