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Biblical proof that there is no angels

Mr E said:
Yawn.

Sorry-- for not pretending along with you that there is some sort of mandatory universal consensus. Your premise is greatly weakened later in that same first chapter of Genesis, where the text aligns much better with the plural form than the singular.

“Then God [’elohîm] said [he said], ‘Let us make [na‘as´eh: verb, first person plural] mankind in our [nû: first person plural pronoun] image, in our [nû: first personal plural pronoun] likeness . . .” (NIV). We find the plural ’elohîm
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Better wake up. God is the creator.

NET has a very good discussion of Genesis 1:26. See 47sn for the verse.

Genesis 1

“For indeed the day is coming, burning like a furnace, and all the arrogant evildoers will be chaff. The coming day will burn them up,” says the Lord who rules over all. “It will not leave even a root or branch. But for you who respect my name, the sun of vindication will rise with healing...
netbible.org
 
“The Hebrew word elohim is grammatically a plural form, and in a couple hundred occurrences in the Old Testament does mean ‘gods.’ However, about 2,600 times elohim functions as a singular noun. We know this for four reasons.”

(Robert M. Bowman, Jr., “Elohim in Genesis 1: God or Gods?”)

bib.irr.org

Elohim in Genesis 1: God or Gods?

Isn’t the Hebrew word elohim found in Genesis 1:1 (and throughout Genesis 1) literally a plural form, meaning “gods”? If this is correct, why don’t English versions translate it that way? Does Genesis 1:1 mean that many gods made the world, as Mormonism and some other religions claim?The Hebrew...
bib.irr.org bib.irr.org
 
Mattathias said:
I have questioned your interpretation of the text. It’s based on a lack of knowledge about the Hebrew language.




The text is singular. Again, as every translation confirms.




It does mean singular because Moses is talking about the one God.



You still haven’t grasped how the Hebrew word functions. All languages have words that function in this same manner. A Hebrew linguist would set you straight on this in less than 60 seconds.



The one God is Yahweh. When Moses speaks about the God (not gods!) of Israel, he’s in a bar where everyone knows his name.



I questioned your understanding of the text and rejected it.

“In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.” That is what Moses wrote in Hebrew.

“In the beginning gods created the heavens and the earth.” That is not what Moses wrote in Hebrew.
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Regarding Elohim….
It can mean plural, as in “gods”; but it can also denote ‘excellence,’ as Judges 16:23 reveals.

The term was used when the Philistines were describing their main god, Dagon. Dagon was not a triad, or anything of the sort. To them, he was a god of supremacy, with no rival….or so they thought.

But this passage reveals what the word “Elohim” can mean.

In light of Deuteronomy 6:4, Isaiah 42:8, & John 17:3, when applied to Yahweh, it must mean excellence.

Have a great day.
 
Hebrew Lexicons slam the door closed on “gods created the heaven and the earth.” So, too, does the Septuagint.

What about Jesus? What would he think about the suggestion that gods (Heb. elohim, plural in form, plural in meaning) created the heavens and the earth?

“But from the beginning of creation, ‘God made them male and female.’”

(Mark 10:6, NABRE)

That is perfectly consistent with elohim, plural in form, singular in meaning.

But is this a mistranslation of what Jesus said? Are the translators who bedevil @Mr E “at it again”?

Is it conceivable that what Jesus - who was capable of reading the Hebrew text - actually said was: “But from the beginning of creation, ‘gods made them male and female’”?
 
Are you done? 😅

It's the difference between geese and goose.

Don't look at me like I'm weird. Jesus would have read what it says-- "geese."
 
The_H_C said:
Regarding Elohim….
It can mean plural, as in “gods”; but it can also denote ‘excellence,’ as Judges 16:23 reveals.

The term was used when the Philistines were describing their main god, Dagon. Dagon was not a triad, or anything of the sort. To them, he was a god of supremacy, with no rival….or so they thought.

But this passage reveals what the word “Elohim” can mean.

In light of Deuteronomy 6:4, Isaiah 42:8, & John 17:3, when applied to Yahweh, it must mean excellence.

Have a great day.
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This is the same sort of logic that @Mattathias and the translators employ. It "must" mean something other than what it actually says-- because our theology demands it.
 
Mr E said:
This is the same sort of logic that @Mattathias and the translators employ. It "must" mean something other than what it actually says-- because our theology demands it.
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Neither the translators nor I say that it must mean something other than what it actually says.

You have no support for your belief that gods created the heavens and the earth.

It is you who say that it “must” mean something other than what it actually says - because your theology demands it.
 
“The weightiest word in any language is the word for God.” - A.W. Tozer

* I’m looking at you, elohim. *
 
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