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The Absolute Equality of Jesus Christ With God The Father

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ICHTHUS

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The Absolute Equality of Jesus Christ With God The Father

“και παν κτισμα ο εστιν εν τω ουρανω και εν τη γη και υποκατω της γης και επι της θαλασσης α εστιν και τα εν αυτοις παντα ηκουσα λεγοντας τω καθημενω επι του θρονου και τω αρνιω η ευλογια και η τιμη και η δοξα και το κρατος εις τους αιωνας των αιωνων” (Revelation 5:13-14)

"And ALL of the Creation, which is in the heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and on the sea, and all things that are in them, heard I saying, to Him Who sits on the throne, and unto the Lamb, be ALL the blessing, and ALL the honour, and ALL the glory, and ALL the might, for ever and ever. And the four living creatures said, Amen. And the elders fell down and worshipped." (so emphasized in the Greek)

Note the words, “τω καθημενω επι του θρονου και τω αρνιω”, “to Him Who sits on the throne AND to the Lamb”, where the Greek conjunction, “και”, is used for “sameness”, with absolute equality. Thus, we read in chapter 22, verse 1: “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very important, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”, where “του θρονου” (the throne), is in the singular number. God and the Lamb, as “distinct” Persons, are united in Their Rule. This absolute unity, can also be seen in chapter 11:15, “And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ; and He shall Reign for ever and ever”. Note the end, “He shall Reign”, which in the Greek is, “βασιλευσει”, which is in the singular number. It can refer to “His Christ”, or, to “our Lord and of His Christ”, the latter no doubt being the correct meaning, as seen from the main passage from chapter 5, and 22. Let no one suppose that there is some “subordination” with Jesus Christ to the Father, post-Incarnation, as this is proven as completely wrong from these passages in Revelation.

These passages are some of the strongest and clearest in the Holy Bible, that speak of the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ. It also shows His equality with the Father, and further teaches that there are Two Persons in Scripture, Who are equally Almighty God. We read, "to Him Who (Gk, toi) sits on the throne, and to the (Gk, toi) Lamb". Where it is very clear from the Greek text, that two separate Persons are spoken of, God the Father, and God the Son (the Lamb).

Verse 13 speaks of "every created thing which is in the heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and on the sea, and all things that are in them", which is nothing less than the entirety of the human race, "every created thing", with no exceptions. Here the entire universe ascribes "THE blessing, and THE honour, and THE glory, and THE Might", where in the Greek text, the "article [the]" is repeated with each word, signifying, "whatever blessing, and honour, and glory, and might", there is in the entire universe, as in ALL blessings, honour, glory, might, is here said to belong "to Him that sits on the throne", which is God the Father in this case. So, let us be clear here what is being taught; that, ALL, "THE blessing, and ALL THE honour, and ALL THE glory, and ALL THE might", are said EQUALLY to belong to God the Father, and God the Son. In the Book of Isaiah we read these words: "to whom will ye liken me, and make me equal, and compare me, that we may be like? (46:5), and in 42:8, "I am Jehovah, that is my name; and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise unto graven images". It is very clear from these passages, that Almighty God would never "share" His glory, praise with another, nor can He ever be compared with, or made equal with anyone. And yet, in the passage in Revelation, this is exactly what the Apostle John, writing under the guiding of the Holy Spirit, has done! It would be nothing short of blasphemy, for the Apostle John, to have written as he did in Revelation 5:13-14, IF, Jesus Christ was a created being, as some, like the Jehovah's Witnesses falsely teach. How can the Almighty Creator God, be EVER "share" the " blessings, and honour, and glory, and might", with a someone Whom He created? Can the Creator be said to be EQUAL with His creation, IF as some blaspheme, that Jesus is a created being? Jesus Himself says in the Gospel of John, "My Father works until now, and I work" (5:17), which the Jews rightly understood as Jesus "making Himself equal (Gk, isos, "the same in quality". J H Thayer, Greek-English lexicon; "to claim for one's self the nature, rank, authority, which belongs to God, Jn. v.18", p.307. Thayer was a Unitarian, who, like the Jehovah's Witnesses, denied the Deity of Jesus Christ) to God (toi theoi)", because He had called God, "His OWN Father" (verse 18). Thus is their relationship. And in verse 23, Jesus says something that ONLY someone who was coequal to the Father could ever have said. We read: "That everyone (all humans) should honour (Gk, time, "worship, esteem, honour") the Son, even as (Gk, kathos, "just as, even as", indicating comparision) they honour the Father. He that does not honour the Son, does not honour the Father Who sent Him". Can a created being demand that SAME honour that God the Father is given? Regardless of highly exalted Jesus Christ might have been, if He were a created being, there is NO way that He could ever have used language as He does here, without blaspheming. Even as the Incarnate Son of God, Jesus Christ demanded EQUAL “HONOUR” with the Father, though He says that “The Father is greater than I” (John 14:28). Here is indeed a Great Mystery!

John then goes on to say in verse 14, “And the elders fell down and worshipped”. This “worship” is here directed to BOTH , “to Him Who sits on the throne, AND unto the Lamb”, which further shows that Jesus Christ, post-Incarnation, is 100% COEQUAL, with God the Father, and in the Godhead, His Deity is no “less”, in any way, than the Father. The fact that BOTH are WORSHIPPED TOGETHER, can only be understood to Their being also COESSENTIAL

Also, in Revelation 1:17, and 2:8, we read of Jesus Christ say of Himself, that He is, "the first and the last". Thayer says of the words, "ho protos kai ho eschatos, i.e. the eternal One" (page, 554). Which can ONLY mean that Jesus Christ is UNCREATED, and ETERNAL. Add to this the words of Jesus Christ in chapter 22, “I am THE Alpha and THE Omega, THE First and THE Last, THE Beginning and THE End”. In Isaiah 44:6, we read, “Thus says the LORD, the King of Israel and his Redeemer, the LORD of hosts: “I am THE First and I am THE Last; besides me there is no god”. It is not only impossible for Jesus to have said these words about Himself, IF, as some teach, that He is no more than a mere “created” being, but, it would also be the highest form of blasphemy. However, we are confident from what we read in the Infallible Word of God, that there can be no doubt, that Jesus Christ, IS indeed ALMIGHTY GOD, without beginning or end, as are God the Father, and God the Holy Spirit.


Jesus Christ IS The Great I AM, Yahweh, Almighty God.
 
Jesus Christ isn’t Yahweh, Almighty God.

Jesus Christ is functionally equal with, not absolutely equal with, Yahweh, Almighty God.

Yahweh, Almighty God, is the God and Father of Jesus Christ.

The Father is then, as Jesus Christ himself said (John 14:28), greater than he.
 
Jesus Christ isn’t Yahweh, Almighty God.

Jesus Christ is functionally equal with, not absolutely equal with, Yahweh, Almighty God.

Yahweh, Almighty God, is the God and Father of Jesus Christ.

The Father is then, as Jesus Christ himself said (John 14:28), greater than he.

You will find, and undoubtedly have already discovered-- that there are a great many Christians, including most Catholics and Evangelicals alike, who agree with the premise that Jesus is Yahweh/Yahweh is Jesus--

Because of what you are calling this "functional equivalency" I would argue that Yahweh, while directly and undeniably associated with Jesus in scripture-- cannot be the Father, precisely because of this hierarchy you recognize-- that the Father is greater.
 
You will find, and undoubtedly have already discovered-- that there are a great many Christians, including most Catholics and Evangelicals alike, who agree with the premise that Jesus is Yahweh/Yahweh is Jesus--

Yes.

Because of what you are calling this "functional equivalency" I would argue that Yahweh, while directly and undeniably associated with Jesus in scripture-- cannot be the Father, precisely because of this hierarchy you recognize-- that the Father is greater.

I had a professor in college who spoke about the importance of rightly connecting the dots.

God is the head of Messiah -> The Father is greater than Jesus - > Yahweh is greater than Jesus -> Yahweh is the God and Father of Jesus

The connected dots draw a picture. Are the dots rightly connected? I believe they are, but I’m also willing to consider that they may not be.

Not everyone will agree that they are. The picture will be criticized and dismissed. The dots will be connected differently by critics; a different picture will be drawn.

Not everyone will agree that the picture that is offered in place of mine is correct. The replacement will be criticized and dismissed. The dots will be connected in still yet another way - and the process I’ve outlined in brief will be repeated.

Draw a picture. That’s what everyone does in their minds when we read the Bible.

Pick a picture. That’s what everyone does, but not everyone has been exposed to more than one picture.

Which picture do we find persuasive, and why?
 
The Absolute Equality of Jesus Christ With God The Father

This is patently absurd. Jesus was born and died. God the Father never was begotton and never died.

I could go on and on about the inequalities but this is so obvioulsy not true. Scripture only contains "God the Father." God is not equal to those who are not even gods in his book.
 
This is patently absurd. Jesus was born and died. God the Father never was begotton and never died.

I could go on and on about the inequalities but this is so obvioulsy not true. Scripture only contains "God the Father." God is not equal to those who are not even gods in his book.

We begin with the Father has no equals. Trinitarianism ends with God is three co-equal persons.

Something happened, in post biblical times, which moved Christianity from a Jewish understanding of God to a non-Jewish understanding of God. Examining the process is informative and beneficial to readers, but what settles the question for which understanding is valid?

For me it is this: Jesus is a Jew. I’ve made his understanding of God mine, and paid dearly for it.
 
Something happened, in post biblical times, which moved Christianity from a Jewish understanding of God to a non-Jewish understanding of God. Examining the process is informative and beneficial to readers, but what settles the question for which understanding is valid?
But did something change? The OT Jews recognized God's Word and Wisdom as being personifications of the One God of the Shema. This is one reason some Jews were willing to accept Jesus as the Word made flesh - it didn't mean God was now two, still just One. The Gnostics and Hellenists likewise had the concept of One God who expressed or revealed Himself in different aspects or emanations. Jesus related to God as "Abba" and taught others to do the same, but I'm not convinced He had or taught any understanding different from the Shema. He surely believed He was the Messiah, but I'm not convinced He had or taught any understanding of God different from what every other first century Jew believed.
 
But did something change?

Yes.

“It is impossible to document what we now call orthodoxy in the first two centuries of Christianity; heresy often appears more prominently, so much so that orthodoxy looks like a reaction to it. But we can document orthodoxy for all the centuries since then - in other words, for close to seventeen centuries of the church’s existence.”

(Harold O.J. Brown, Heresies: Heresy And Orthodoxy In The History Of The Church, p. 5)

Dr. Brown was a trinitarian. When he speaks of orthodoxy he means the faith of the Council of Nicaea (as clarified by the Council of Constantinople) and the Council of Chalcedon - historical trinitarianism. He wrote with the hope and desire of bringing those who have left that faith - people such as myself - back to that faith.

“In theology, we have to say that we now seem to ave entered a post-Chalcedonian era. The transformation this development portends is greater than anything that has yet happened within Christianity. It can be compared only to the transition within biblical monotheism itself, from the unitary monotheism of Israel to the trinitarianism of the Council of Chalcedon. The difference is symbolized by the transition from the prayer Shema Yisroel, of Deuteronomy 6:4 (Hear, O Israel: The Lord our God is one Lord …’), to the confession of the Athanasian Creed, ‘We worship one God in Trinity, and Trinity in unity.’”

(Ibid., p. 431)

There’s the change I alluded to.

“Was the transition from the personal monotheism of Israel to the tripersonal theism of Nicaea a legitimate development of Old Testament revelation?”

(Ibid.)

That’s the $64,000 question. I say it wasn’t. Dr. Brown says,

“Christians affirm that it is, holding that Nicaea represents a fuller unfolding, not a distortion, of the self-disclosure of the God of Israel. Indeed, the trinitarianism of Nicaea and the Christological definitions of Chalcedon are seen as the valid and necessary interpretation of the claims of Jesus Christ in the context of the Old Testament witness to the God who is One. Without Nicaea and Chalcedon, it would not have been possible to maintain that Christianity is a biblical religion, the legitimate daughter of Old Testament Judaism.”

(Ibid.)

I find many things to take issue with in his affirmation. The point I’m making here though is that a transformation occurred in the early centuries of Christianity - from personal monotheism to tripersonal monotheism.

Jesus is a Jew. His understanding of God is found in the personal monotheism of Israel, not in the tripersonal theism of Nicaea.

The OT Jews recognized God's Word and Wisdom as being personifications of the One God of the Shema. This is one reason some Jews were willing to accept Jesus as the Word made flesh - it didn't mean God was now two, still just One. The Gnostics and Hellenists likewise had the concept of One God who expressed or revealed Himself in different aspects or emanations. Jesus related to God as "Abba" and taught others to do the same, but I'm not convinced He had or taught any understanding different from the Shema. He surely believed He was the Messiah, but I'm not convinced He had or taught any understanding of God different from what every other first century Jew believed.

Well said. I’m in agreement with what you’ve said.
 
“Christianity took four centuries to formulate its witness to the deity and humanity of Christ in the context of the one God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob in such a way that it preserved a coherent approach to the unity of truth. It has taken fifteen centuries more to forget Chalcedon again; as it loses touch with Chalcedon, the Christian world is in the process of losing its coherence. It is in fact losing the conviction that there is any final truth about the one who said, ‘I am the way, the truth, and the life.’ (John 14:6).”

(Harold O.J. Brown, Heresies, p. 432)

If Dr. Brown was alive today I would ask him about the Christians who lived and died without having any knowledge or awareness of what it took the church four centuries to formulate.

I would also ask him to comment on why he believed the personal unitary monotheism of Jesus is inferior to the tripersonal theism of Nicaea he was passionate about.

In the absence of deceased Dr. Brown, I ask those questions of living trinitarians. They’ve chosen the gradual post-biblical formulations of the church over Jesus and the earliest Christians.
 
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