That would be construing the name as descriptive rather than merely nominative.
I don't think we should set aside that it was a messenger of Yahweh that Moses encountered. (Ex 3:2) Acknowledging the text- which states this as the case, it requires a reader to perform a jedi-mind-trick to insist that the angel first addresses Moses from the bush, --an elohim, the text specifies-- and then suddenly it is Yahweh himself speaking. (Ex 3:4) It isn't. Moses see this bush, he goes to look at it, the elohim calls him by name out of the flames and it is Moses who says- Here I am. Your copy probably flips it, to make some sort of distinction-- Here am I. It's silly. It's Moses who begins to address this angel as LORD. --Well before the I AM is uttered.
If you can accept it, the messenger is the one conveying the word of God, as angels do. And it is the messenger speaking to Moses still in verse 5 and onward- making the claim that he is the elohim of the father- Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Is he? It's a bold claim, but what if it was a false claim. Moses has no way of knowing. Hundreds and hundreds of years have passed. 500 years of life in Egypt have passed. Moses' own life growing up and being educated in Pharaoh's household has passed.
And then there is also this to consider >>> 2 Corinthians 11:14
But-- Moses? In for a penny, in for a pound. He accepts that this is now 'the God' that he has encountered, and he accepts the elohim's claim that he is the elohim of the fathers... true, or not. And even though this one says 'hayah hayah' is what you should say when folks ask who I am Moses in the text assigns this one the Yahweh (LORD) nominative title.
In Exodus 6:3 this elohim admits that there's been a name change.